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Wednesday, February 24, 2016
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Last 10 Posts
Tuesday, October 3, 2017 9:38:54 AM
According to Wikipedia it would be date-plum in English too, for the sole variety of persimmon coming from south-east Europe:
Diospyros lotus (date-plum)
Date-plum (Diospyros lotus), also known as lotus persimmon, is native to southwest Asia and southeast Europe. It was known to the ancient Greeks as "the fruit of the gods" and often referred to as "nature's candy". Its English name probably derives from Persian Khormaloo خرمالو literally "date-plum", referring to the taste of this fruit, which is reminiscent of both plums and dates.
Russian "Khurma" is indeed related to "Khormaloo". (I can't read the Georgian alphabet.)
[EDIT]By the way, TFD redirects "Date-plum" to "persimmon"
How to expand 'A / B C'
Thursday, September 28, 2017 5:59:27 AM
This is no English grammar but German culture.
The number before the slash are a regional prefix ('0' + 2 to 3 digits). 0228 corresponds to Bonn, the former administrative federal capital city. Then, you will find 6 to 8 digits depending on the standard. The dash separates the standard (~district) number from the line number. It helps to determinate the length of the number. (In Bonn, 882 is always followed by 4 digits.)
If you call from Bonn, you only compose 882 8627.
If you call from another German city, you compose 0228 882 8627.
If you call from another country, you dial +49 228 882 8627 (without the '0' that denotes a regional code in Germany. '00' for international call.)
Because the three parts of the phone number have various lengths, a separation marker is necessary between them. German usage is to write a slash to separate the optional part of the number, then an (optional) dash in the mandatory part.
In international publication, you may also find this number written as: +49 (228) 882 8627 or +49 228 882-8627.
Song lines translated into English
Thursday, September 14, 2017 8:04:00 AM
Hi, first of all, it seems the two bolded lines are not the right ones:
"One gives the change, one believes Make choices" matches "On se donne le change, on croit Que l'on fait des choix".
"Donner le change" is a French idiom meaning "successfully disguising one's intents". In this song, it's a wordplay with "On ne change pas" meaning "No one changes".
Here, I would translate "On se donne le change" by "One convinces oneself" or even "one succeeds in fooling oneself".
"On croit que l'on fait des choix" is simply "One believes one make choices".
The two lines in bold are "On a toujours un geste qui trahit qui l'on est" : "One always make a gesture that gives away who one is."
"On" is a very difficult word to translate. It is an "indefinite personal pronoun" that describes a person with no indication about that person.
It could be translated as "one, you, we, they, anybody, everybody, somebody" depending on the context.
Here, we have a list of absolute statements that can apply to anybody. So instead of "one", I'd personally rather use an absolute "you" (meaning not you personally, but anyone in this situation).
So another translation would be :
You do not change,
You just convince yourself you do, you think you can take decisions.
You never forget,
You always act a way that gives away who you are, a prince, a servant.
Wednesday, August 30, 2017 5:32:16 AM
Just one of those things.
The French would probably say "toor
do". The first vowel sound different from 'tornado'.
We actually say tour-nuhh-doe ([tuʀnədo]). "Toornaydo" would be spelled tour
dos with "accent aigu".
But since the American pronunciation of "dos a dos" (back to back) is "Dosi-dose", who knows what the cooks call it?
The French would say [dozado] so it's not so far away. (We usually not pronounce the last consonant of a word, except when the next word starts with a vowel then we "link" both words.)
Talking about etymology, before describing a "morceau de choix", "tournedos" (lit. "turn back") was first used to describe a coward, then a second-choice piece of fish. (When the colour of the fish started to look suspicious, merchants on the market place simply flip them on the back side to hide the rotten colouration. "Tournedos" were pieces of fish, then meat, that were a little aged.)
When did Venusian become an acceptable synonym for Venerian?
Friday, August 25, 2017 5:18:37 AM
IMHO, it depends more on the type of publication.
- Classical, science or international publications tend to stick with Latin grammar, because it eases identification and translation of technical terms, and because it sounds smarter.
(Alma mater's unofficial motto : quidquid latine dictum sit altum sonatur.)
So, the "classical" words for "related to Venus" derive from the genitive form of Venus : Veneris. And universitarian smart guys (another -aris genitive
) will use it to display they belong to the smart guys club.
- The man on the street on the other hand didn't care about Venus as a goddess or a planet for a millennium at least, except for a specific, intimate matters where Latin words are considered less crude than English equivalents. (Hence the continuation of the medical usage of "venereal" in everyday modern English.)
So when astrology, then science-fiction, then astronomy became "mainstream", Latin's etymology was long lost to most people and "Venusian" was constructed from a more English pattern.
So my guess to Martin's puzzle would be "When the public at large was aware enough of the planet's existence as a world to speculate about its inhabitants."
btw, "Venera" simply means "Venus" in most of East-European languages.
[The commentary is mine. I don't post enough for people knowing my style, let's simply say that my main personal goal is to practice a foreign language when I write here. I try to get facts right, but I reserve the right to link them according to my own opinions, so I freely admit any, um, divergence from other people's versions.
With apologies to thar for the blatant plagiarism, and all my gratitude as I wanted to express this for long without knowing how
Friday, July 28, 2017 10:32:46 AM
Oops! I just looked up previous D00M's threads about graphs! My bad, it was pretty obvious indeed it was some kind of exercice.
I cannot connect daily and often miss the context as I read the threads "backward".
So sorry again for the inconvenience,
Friday, July 28, 2017 9:53:43 AM
I'm neither a teacher nor a native speaker, so I cannot check the grammar of your description.
However from a statistician's point of view (which I'm not either actually), or at least from a mathematician's point of view, some points annoy me on the graph itself:
* First, I think a "rate" describe a quantity measured
with respect to
something else. These are "number of births & deaths". Birth rate would be "the average annual number of births during a year
per 1,000 population
at midyear". And "natality" is another word for "birth rate" so "natality rate" may be regarded as redundant.
* Second, I don't know how to read the quantities in regard of the years displayed on the x-axis:
o> Are they actually years when a census happened or decades? (Your description doesn't make it clearer, jumping from "1.7 million cases in the 90s" to "2.7 million in 2000" then "800 thousand deaths in 2020".)
o> If they represent data on a period of ten years, does 2.7million represent the number of birth from 2000 to 2009? From 1996 to 2005 (centered on 2000)? An average annual number representing one of those two periods? Shouldn't the title read 1965-2025, 1970-2029, or 70s-2020s in this case?
I'm really sorry to bother you if you are not the author of the chart itself. Either way, IMHO you should address those points in your description as a reading guideline.
Sorry for the cross-post with DragOn. Btw, TFD lists "Natality" as "esp US".
What do you call that little thing?
Friday, May 12, 2017 11:30:49 AM
Shame on me, I understood you described the grommet, not the aglet.
So I stand corrected: aglet is the metal thingy on the lace and grommet the metal thingy around the eyelet.
And as "aiguillette" is not used in French anymore, and described the lace with aglets anyway, I have no idea about how to say aglet in my own native language.
Still learned two words thanks to you, TheParser, Frosty & NKM, so thanks to the three of you!
Spending much time analyzing sentences grammatically is useful?
Friday, May 12, 2017 11:13:48 AM
A cooperator wrote:
Yes. but even our native Arabic language was being taught to us while in schools according to some grammar rules. Or otherwise, we couldn't have written correctly in Arabic. Though we might be speaking it correctly without being learnt to us by any Arabic-Arab/Non-Arab teachers. As a result, if our native Arabic language required being learnt under certain of grammar rules to be able to write correctly, then what about other foreign languages?
Hi A Cooperator,
I don't know about Arabic language, but I feel the same with my own native language.
And maybe you are in the same situation as we French are.
We actually need to study French grammar in school, because written French use a lot of subtleties that are not pronounced anymore, but because French is a language that is normalized (even legalized!) since centuries, we still write them.
For example, most past participle ends in "-é" and are pronounced exactly the same way as infinitives ending in "-er". So, "Un chien a mangé" (One dog ate) and "Un chien à manger" (A dog to eat, a dog that can be eaten) are pronounced the same. The plural "-s" suffix is not pronounced either (but shall be put after noons, adjectives and participles).
It means that most spelling mistakes made by French pupils are grammar errors, so grammar is central in French learning especially for native speakers. And our school system live in the illusion that grammar is central in learning any language.
On the other hand, most of English grammar can be heard, or has no impact on spelling. (Except for the infamous its / it's, your / you're, and there / their / they're.)
I feel, and we are taught, that most spelling errors in English are more likely traced to etymology than grammar.
In fact, it is said in France that French people are bad learner of other European languages because French school tends to teach grammar first and so we fail to grasp the basic pronunciation and rhythm of the language. (At least for English, German and Spanish.)
For instance, I will personally never mix "than" and "then" or "affect and "effect" while writing, but I still struggle to pronounce them the same! (And probably pronounce all of them wrong.) And when I say I *can* do something, the answer is "Hold on... Can you, or Can you not? I can't hear if you said can or can't.".
What do you call that little thing?
Friday, May 12, 2017 10:11:09 AM
Thanks a lot for this this word I will never forget, since it is derived from a old French word meaning the exact opposite!
(During middle-age, on both sides of the Channel, "aiguillettes" were the laces fixing the lower part of the clothing to the upper part. "aiguillettes" went through "œillets", which is still the French word for "aglet")
So, thanks to you, there is at least one word in English I'll know better than 99% of Americans!
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