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Neither, nor; Either, or; Or? Options
thorx89
Posted: Monday, March 22, 2010 6:44:45 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 5/11/2009
Posts: 195
Neurons: 419
Location: Czech Republic
I'm not sure if this sentence is quite right:
"This means no perceivable change for either the customer or the supplier."
or should it be?:
"This means perceivable change for neither the customer nor the supplier."

Or does it sound weird in _either_ case?
Any advice appreciated. :-)
grammargeek
Posted: Monday, March 22, 2010 8:50:12 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 3/21/2009
Posts: 11,136
Neurons: 33,836
Location: Arizona, U.S.
thorx89 wrote:
I'm not sure if this sentence is quite right:
"This means no perceivable change for either the customer or the supplier."
or should it be?:
"This means perceivable change for neither the customer nor the supplier."

Or does it sound weird in _either_ case?
Any advice appreciated. :-)


Both sentences are quite right!

They are both grammatically correct and convey the same information, but I'd say the either/or sentence sounds more typical and flows with a little more ease. The neither/nor sentence might be chosen if you are trying to emphasize the latter half of the sentence a bit more, for some reason. Nevertheless, I'd say not to worry about it very much.

Welcome to the forum, thorx89.
Ketardously
Posted: Saturday, March 27, 2010 3:52:08 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 6/13/2009
Posts: 68
Neurons: 207
Location: Sweden
I wonder, is this correct too?

"This means no perceivable change for the customer nor the supplier."

(maybe you should add a "for" so the sentence goes ...nor for the supplier?)
srirr
Posted: Thursday, April 1, 2010 2:15:20 AM

Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 12/29/2009
Posts: 8,507
Neurons: 484,288
thorx89 wrote:
I'm not sure if this sentence is quite right:
"This means no perceivable change for either the customer or the supplier."
or should it be?:
"This means perceivable change for neither the customer nor the supplier."

Or does it sound weird in _either_ case?
Any advice appreciated. :-)


The meaning of the two sentences may differ in specific contexts.
In senetence 1, the negation is on "perceivable change". Means there is no perceivable change, but there could be other changes for customer and/or supplier.
In sentence 2, the negation is on customer and supplier. Means the perceivable change may be applicable to other vendors or clients or manufacturers.

Am I making any sense?
m@ys@m
Posted: Thursday, April 1, 2010 12:31:54 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 11/30/2009
Posts: 38
Location: Iran
srirr wrote:
thorx89 wrote:
I'm not sure if this sentence is quite right:
"This means no perceivable change for either the customer or the supplier."
or should it be?:
"This means perceivable change for neither the customer nor the supplier."

Or does it sound weird in _either_ case?
Any advice appreciated. :-)


The meaning of the two sentences may differ in specific contexts.
In senetence 1, the negation is on "perceivable change". Means there is no perceivable change, but there could be other changes for customer and/or supplier.
In sentence 2, the negation is on customer and supplier. Means the perceivable change may be applicable to other vendors or clients or manufacturers.

Am I making any sense?

Great!Applause
You DO make sense
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