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navi
Posted: Wednesday, January 13, 2021 6:32:45 AM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 5/16/2014
Posts: 528
Neurons: 5,080
1) It would be good for him to lose.
2) For him to lose would be good.

Those could mean that he would benefit from losing. But could it also mean:

a) It would be good that he should lose.

Gratefully,
Navi
Wilmar (USA) 1M
Posted: Wednesday, January 13, 2021 7:51:09 AM

Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 6/4/2015
Posts: 5,676
Neurons: 1,269,998
Location: Vinton, Iowa, United States
For all practical purposes, all three sentences mean the same thing. The difference is, however, the second and third sentences are not natural -- the wording is clumsy.
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