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Profile: A cooperator
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User Name: A cooperator
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Occupation: A teaching assistant at a University
Interests: English
Gender: Male
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Joined: Thursday, October 27, 2011
Last Visit: Saturday, September 14, 2019 7:12:28 PM
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  Last 10 Posts
Topic: nor did
Posted: Saturday, September 14, 2019 7:10:50 PM
Audiendus wrote:
Quote:
If so, as long as the auxiliary verbs 'could'/will', and the infinitive verbs 'log in/punish' are available in order in the two sentences, what about putting 'neither' before 'I'/'They', putting the auxiliary verbs in between
"I have just said that neither could I log in nor register another one".
"Neither will I punish nor arrest you"

No, these are wrong. If you have an auxiliary after "neither", you also need an auxiliary (the same or a different one) and a subject (the same or different) after "nor". So the correct versions are:

"I have just said that neither could I log in nor could I register another one".
"Neither will I punish [you] nor will I arrest you."
(The "you" in brackets is optional.)

However, the first of the above sentences, although correct, sounds a little unnatural. It would be better to say:

"I have just said that I could neither log in nor register another one."

Here, the auxiliary ("could") comes before "neither", so you don't need another auxiliary and subject with "nor".


Audiendus,
If it is just I who decide to have an auxiliary verb before or after a negative[a negative adverbial expression]( in this case, neither), then what difference is there between:
"I have just said neither could I log in, nor could I register another one." and ""I have just said that I could neither log in nor register another one."

Also, I don't know if "No idea where she is going nor the consequences of her actions" is correct. Or it should read as:
"No idea where she is going, nor do I know the consequences of her actions."



Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: nor did
Posted: Saturday, September 14, 2019 6:37:35 PM
A cooperator wrote:
[quote=Audiendus][quote=A cooperator]
I think that subject-verb inversion can come in three categories:
1- after such constructions "I am happy. So am I." Yes. And "Here is the book."


I am a little bit confused between "Here is not it allowed to smoke." and "Here is not allowed to smoke."

Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: nor did
Posted: Thursday, September 12, 2019 6:33:25 PM
Audiendus wrote:

A 'preposition phrase' is a phrase beginning with a preposition. Such a phrase can also be described by its function, e.g. 'noun phrase', 'adverbial phrase'.
"From where you are" is a preposition phrase which may be either an adverbial phrase (e.g. "From where you are, you can see the whole town") or a noun phrase (e.g. "I want to know from where you are").


Audiendus,
First, but I can distinguish an adverbial phrase from a preposition phrase by asking 'how?' for adverbial phrase and 'where' for preposition phrase. "He came quickly" - How did he come? "When you arrive home, please call me" is an adverbial phrase.

Second, so I am not a little bit confused:
A 'preposition phrase' is a phrase beginning with a preposition. A preposition phrase can also be described by its function, e.g. 'noun phrase', 'adverbial phrase'. In other words, how can a preposition phrase be used as a prposition phrase, adverbial phrase or noun phrase in the same place at once?
'John is at the church.', which can 'at the church' be considered as a prepostion phrase or adverbial phrase?

Final, the subject-verb inversion can be used after a preposition phrase "..to confront a bunch of countries, among which are the US and UK". But, it cannot be used in a preposition phrase which can be functioned as 'noun phrase', or 'adverbial phrase'. Sometimes it's easy to know if a preposition phrase is only functioned as a preposition phrase, and not an adverbial phrase, nor a noun phrase. So, inversion is applied. For example,
"among which" is only functioned as a prepostion phrase in "..to confront a bunch of countries, among which are the US and UK" since it's answering the question 'where are the US and UK?'
"in which" is only functioned as a prepostion phrase in "There are quite a few cases in which is a noun (which is ONLY a noun) and also a gerund(the noun derived from a verb, which has the same form as the participle)." since it's answering the question 'where is a noun?'.

However, some other times, it is hard to know if a 'preposition phrase' can also be described by its function, e.g. 'noun phrase', 'adverbial phrase' after which inversion isn't used?
"We have now a lot of applications from all over the world, from many countries where are crisis by different reasons." OR "We have now a lot of applications from all over the world, from many countries where crisis are by different reasons."
"It isn't a preposition phrase after which is a subject-verb inversion." Or "It isn't a preposition phrase after which a subject-verb inversion is."





Audiendus wrote:
Inversion cannot be used within a noun phrase:
Where are you from? [correct]
I want to know where you are from. [correct]
I want to know from where you are. [correct but unnatural]
I want to know where are you from. [incorrect]
I want to know from where are you. [incorrect]
In the box were some books. [correct]
I do not know why some books were in the box. [correct]
I do not know why in the box were some books. [incorrect]

First, in Arabic language, the six directions(over, under, behind, in front, left, right) are considered all adverbs for directions.
"The book is on the table" is a 'adverbial phrase' since it's answering the the question 'how is the book'. So, NOT - 'On the table is the book' since it isn't a preposition phrase after which is subject-verb inversion.]
So, 'on the table' would be considered an adverbial phrase for the direction, not a preposition phrase. So, why is there inversion?
"On the table was a box, in which lay the missing key."

On the other hand, "In the box " in "In the box were some books" would be considered as a preposition phrase since it is not answering the question 'how were the books?', but it's answering the question 'where were the books?'. So, a phrase can be described as preposition phrase if it indicates the destination "John is going to school"

Second, "I am at home. - At home am I." is a preposition phrase[where am I?', NOT 'How am I?'] as long as the following are considered as preposition phrases '"On the table was a box, in which lay the missing key." and "In the box were some books"





Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: 'Neither statement is true.' or 'Neither of the statements is true.'
Posted: Thursday, September 12, 2019 4:31:32 PM
Hi Everyone!
AFAIK, I know that 'neither' can be used to compare two things as discussed below:
Quote:
The grammatically correct phrase is: “Neither of the men had his entitlements.”
The word “neither” is implicative and derivative of “neither one” when comparing two things. Without changing the meaning of the sentence, you could just as easily say:

“Neither one of the men had his entitlements.”

If you were comparing three or more things, you would use “none”; not “neither”.

“None of the men had their entitlements.”

Although “none” is a zero-implication word, it utilizes the plural possessive pronoun since it’s defining the separation of three or more entities.

if you had seventeen unpeeled oranges, then:

“None of the oranges were peeled.”

If you had two unpeeled oranges; then:

“Neither of the oranges was peeled.”

Since “neither” implies two things being compared, then when separated by comparison they are each a singular entity; thus requiring a singular possessive pronoun: ie. “his”.

Were you to state the opposite of your sentence, it would read thusly:

“Both of the men had their entitlements.”

Since “both” implies two entities, the plural possessive pronoun “their” is used.

When using “neither” you are defining each individual in a grouping of two as a singular entity; therefore the singular possessive pronoun should be used.



Also, 'statement' can be used as be countable and uncountable:
The Oxford dictionary definition of 'statement':
Quote:
1.[countable] something that you say or write that gives information or an opinion
Are the following statements true or false?
Your statement is misleading.
Is that a statement or a question?
The play makes a strong political statement.
2.[countable] statement (on/about something) a formal or official account of facts or opinions
a formal/a public/a written/an official statement
A government spokesperson made a statement to the press.
The prime minister is expected to issue a statement on the policy change this afternoon.
The police asked me to make a statement (= a written account of facts concerning a crime, used in court if legal action follows).
3.[countable] a printed record of money paid, received, etc.
The directors are responsible for preparing the company's financial statements.
My bank sends me monthly statements.
4. [countable] (in England and Wales) an official report on a child’s special needs made by a local education authority
a statement of special educational needs
5. [uncountable] (formal) the act of stating or expressing something in words[synonym: expression]
When writing instructions, clarity of statement is the most important thing.



I think "Neither of the statements is correct." is the correct one, according to the two quotations above. Or otherwise, 'statement' have the 5th sense above. But, how do I know if 'statement' has the fifth sense in just a single sentence and without context?


Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: nor did
Posted: Thursday, September 12, 2019 4:10:12 PM
A cooperator wrote:
Hi again,
Audiendus, can this example also come in this rule?
Not only am I familiar with the 50 states in the United States, but also my wife and I have visited more than 145 countries in the world, and the Carter Center has had full-time programs in 80 nations on Earth.

I think that it is the same discussion you called "Subject-verb inversion" in the "to confront a bunch of countries, among which are the US and UK(Subject–verb inversion,linking verb)" thread.

Audiendus wrote:
A cooperator wrote:
Could anyone please tell me why we use 'Subject-verb inversion' in '...., among which is the UK.'? That is, what difference is there between '..., among which is the UK.' and '..., among which the UK is.'? No difference in meaning. The inversion is only to make the sentence flow better.

Is always the 'Subject-verb inversion' used whenever a verb is 'copula'/a linking verb? No, the verb normally follows the subject (e.g. "I am a student"). Inversion is only used in some constructions (e.g. after a negative word), or to improve the flow after a preposition phrase. For example:

Never had I seen such a thing. [inversion after a negative]
On the table was a box, in which lay the missing key. [inversion after preposition phrases]



Audiendus,

I was expecting if there are two clauses connected with a conjunction, like "neither...., nor....", then the subject-verb inversion can be applied. However, I've even seen the subject verb inversion can be applied for a main clause beginning with a negative:
Nowhere did I see any sign of life.
Nowhere is there total darkness.
You are being identified as a spammer, so no way am I opening that link. Though luck.

But, I am wondering why the subject-verb inversion is not applied in this main clause as long as it begins with a negative.
"Neither statement is true."




Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: 'More than 70 percent were men' (Subject-Verb Agreement with numbers as subjects)
Posted: Tuesday, September 10, 2019 7:53:28 PM
Thank you, both of you very much indeed,
I sometimes see a singular verb is used with each [of____]. Some other times, I see a plural verb used.
Each of your devices has unique keys.

So, I had to google ['each of' takes a singular or plural], and I found out the following:

When the pronoun [each] is followed by an of phrase containing a plural noun or pronoun, there is a tendency for the verb to be plural: Each of the candidates has (or have) spoken on the issue. Some usage guides maintain that only the singular verb is correct, but plural verbs occur frequently even in edited writing.

Also, could you confirm "....any repeatedly when talking about decisions the UK government have/has made"?

Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: 'secretary of U.S state' Vs 'U.S secretary of state' [word order]
Posted: Monday, September 9, 2019 6:39:18 AM
Hi Everyone!
I've seen these phrases on the topic of when to capitalize job titles somewhere on the Internet:
"U.S Secretary of State Colin Powell" and "Saad Sherida Al-Kaabi, Qatar Minister of State for Energy Affairs, announces that Qatar will leave OPEC next month during..."
But, as long as State is for the U.S, and for Qatar, I am wondering why the author didn't phrase them as follows:
Secretary of U.S State Colin Powell, where the descriptive words 'U.S' are first listed like the way "As per Government of India Guidelines" is phrased.

Saad Sherida Al-Kaabi, Minister of Qatar State for Energy Affairs.



I was told
Quote:
Secretary of State is the title of the post. You can't break it up. Colin Powell was the US Secretary of State.

Dominic Raab, whose official job title is Her Majesty's Principal Secretary of State for Foreign and Commonwealth Affairs) is normally referred to as the (UK) Foreign Secretary.


Also,
Quote:
"State" has many definitions. In this case, "State" does NOT mean one of the American geographically distinct States. It has the broader meaning of "the operations or concerns of the government of a country" (from Merriam Webster).

Also, "Secretary of State" is defined by the same source as "the head of the U.S. government department that is in charge of how the country relates to and deals with foreign countries."




Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: 'More than 70 percent were men' (Subject-Verb Agreement with numbers as subjects)
Posted: Monday, September 9, 2019 6:02:09 AM
Could anyone at this splendid forum take some of their precious time out to reply to my points below?
BobShilling wrote:
A cooperator wrote:
... is it always the first part of a subject that should agree with a verb?


That's a reasonable general idea, but it's not always immediately apparent what native speakers see as the head of the subject. Compare these two sentences:

1. A number of immigrants have been attacked.
2. The number of attacks has increased
.

In #1, 'a number of' functions like a determiner; the head of the subject noun phrase is immigrants (plural). In #2, the head of the subject noun phrase is number, singular.


I also see today the head of the subject is "our students" in "Each of our students have their very own needs when choosing where to live.". However, 'each of' is a determiner. So, how do I find an idea to know what part of a subject must agree with a verb?


BobShilling wrote:
I have shown how apparently plural expressions can be considered singular items/amounts:
Twenty miles is a long way,
Fish and chips is my favourite meal
More than one person is unhappy about this,
Five and five is ten
,

and apparently singular expressions can be seen as plural:

The crowd are unhappy.
England are playing India tomorrow
.


That is why Lotje 1000, in the thread entitled 'Nationalism', stated the following:
Hence why I say it is absurd of Coop to start mentioning Romany repeatedly when talking about decisions the UK government have made.


Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: Have/make/get somebody do/doing something [Causative and Catenative verbs]
Posted: Sunday, September 8, 2019 7:59:35 PM
BobShilling wrote:
A cooperator wrote:

Should I learn the possible construction of each single verb by heart?


Ultimately, yes. As you encounter each catenative verb, see what advice may be given in several dictionaries, including the example sentences. Use fraze.it; that gives quite a few examples of sentences containing the word you look up written by native speakers. It's somewhat easier to use than most of the online corpora.

If you keep a vocabulary book, note down not just the verb, but some example sentences showing how it is used.

And don't try to generalise. Treat each verb as a unique phenomenon.



You are quite right. I know a Yemeni 22 years guy who only learnt English through native teachers of English in Amideast for only a year and half- That's in 2014. He is using English grammatically correctly, but when asking him about the constructions, analysing phrases, or the technical names of grammatical terms, he never knew to answer me.

Catenative verb: denoting a verb that governs a nonfinite form of another verb, for example, like in I like swimming.
This is a new technical name of grammatical terms.

Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.
Topic: Who do you see behaving wrongly?[Verb + an object + participle]
Posted: Sunday, September 8, 2019 7:37:45 PM
BobShilling wrote:
A cooperator wrote:
But, what made me say ""who do you see is wrong?" is correct is I saw this statement somewhere “it’s not something I think is right, and I shouldn’t have done it,” Jones said in the clip.

You are once again assuming that because verb A (in this case 'think') patterns in one way, verb B (in this case 'see') must also pattern in this way.


Thank you both,
For this construction, I think that 'see, think, find etc. can be used.
“it’s not something I think/see/find is right

However, I am now asking about this construction 'see/think/find/etc' + object + participle + complement', or 'see/think/find/etc' + object + infinitive/relative clause' or 'see/think/find/etc' + object + linking verb + complement'
Could you please follow my examples considering the colours and highlighting since they are corresponding to others similar in colour or highlighting?

First, 'see/think/find/etc' + object + participle + complement':

Question: Who do you see behaving in a strikingly unconventional far-fetched way?
Answer: I see John behaving in a strikingly unconventional or far-fetched way.

'see/think/find/etc' + object + infinitive + complement':
Question: Who do you see behave in a strikingly unconventional far-fetched way? -> I was told it sounds awkward to a native ear.
Anwer: I see John behave in a strikingly unconventional or far-fetched way. -> I was told it sounds awkward to a native ear.

'see/think/find/etc' + object + relative clause':
Question: Who do you see that is behaving in a strikingly unconventional far-fetched way? -> I was told it sounds awkward to a native ear.
Answer: I see John that is behaving in a strikingly unconventional or far-fetched way. -> I was told it sounds awkward to a native ear.

'see/think/find/etc' + object + linking verb + complement':
Question: Who do you see wrong?"
Answer: I think John is wrong
Who do you see is wrong?


Second, I think, in the above constructions, "see" can be replaced with "think, find, etc.", and "behaving" with any verb that can be used in a progressive case.
Who do you think doing/that is doing wrong?
"who do you think being wrong?"




Finally, I was told this "Who you see behaving/is behaving in a strikingly unconventional or far-fetched way?". But, I don't agree it is a correct since it's not a correct question. To be correct, it should read as 'Who see...."/"Who do you see...."





Whoever doesn't own what he promises to those who do not deserve must not promise it.

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