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User Name: hobbithopper
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Joined: Saturday, November 14, 2009
Last Visit: Sunday, November 15, 2009 12:36:00 PM
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Topic: was to sing vs was to have sung
Posted: Saturday, November 14, 2009 9:06:42 PM
Romany wrote:
I have also been puzzling over the split infinitive thing: - I see no evidence of one at all.

And now: please forgive if this seems meddlesome - especially as it is not directed at the OP:-

Isaac: While I fully get (now you've explained it) the compliment you are trying to pay to Wanda, perhaps her mystification came from the fact that the word "propriety" is not used to equate to a "search for appropriatenes"?

Acting with propriety would mean conforming to good or proper moral standards. Its not a commonly used word in modern English, except in a jokey manner.

The phrase "search for appropriateness" then, when coupled with "propriety" is capable of being interpreted completely differently to what was intended. (BTW, "search for appropriateness" itself does not quite work.)

I sincerely hope this hasn't offended you, but I see from your posts that you have a keen interest in the English Language and for ways to express yourself. Your enthusiasm is what prompted me but, if I have poked my nose where its not wanted, then feel free to tell me to bugger off.(vulgar; slang term - means go away)
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