LCouperin wrote:"The last 4 bars of the scherzo then present an ascending arpeggio in the left hand, which may be interpreted as a free inversion of the previous scherzo passages."
Sorry to be a pain, but I'm confused about pronoun-antecedent agreement.
What is the antecedent of "which"? It seems that it should be "ascending arpeggio in the left hand" because it's the object of the previous clause. But according to the "rule", the antecedent is the closest person or thing, in this case "hand". But that wouldn't make sense -- a hand cannot be a "free inversion." So what's the dealio? Does logic trump word order? Please help!!
In this case logic trumps proximity, and sound trumps grammar.
One way to make this more clear would be:
"The last 4 bars of the scherzo, which may be interpreted as a free inversion of the previous scherzo passages, then present an ascending arpeggio in the left hand."
This construction is also possible:
"The last 4 bars of the scherzo then present an ascending arpeggio, which may be interpreted as a free inversion of the previous scherzo passages, in the left hand."
As you point out, it is absurd to consider that a hand could be an inversion of something, so it makes sense to parse "ascending arpeggio in the left hand" as the next viable antecedent for "which".
Give my regards to JPRameau.
"Sometimes I sits and thinks, and sometimes I just sits." - Satchel Paige