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navi
Posted: Friday, July 13, 2018 2:25:35 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 5/16/2014
Posts: 329
Neurons: 3,130
1) I can't rent many apartments.
2) I can't rent a lot of apartments.

Can one use '1' and '2' if the intended meaning is:
A) There are a lot of apartments I can't rent.

I am going to rent one apartment, but there are many apartments I can't rent.

Gratefully,
Navi
thar
Posted: Friday, July 13, 2018 2:53:38 PM

Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 7/8/2010
Posts: 17,304
Neurons: 70,014
No. It means means you can rent a few at the same time, but eventually you run out of money.


The way to say it is as you have with 'there are...'

It just doesn't work as an object of the verb.
palapaguy
Posted: Saturday, July 14, 2018 12:33:47 AM

Rank: Advanced Member

Joined: 10/28/2013
Posts: 1,022
Neurons: 10,111
Location: Calabasas, California, United States
The question is ambiguous. Are you the landlord, renting them out (as I inferred)?

Or are you the intended lessee, looking to rent for your own use (unlikely)?

In either case, both forms are fine.
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