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In today's world, we know that neutral accent is good and essential for International business, oversees communication, for jobs abroad, outsourcing industry, acting, voice overs and social interaction. But how to speak in a neutral accent?
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I don't think accent neutrality is as feasible as proper elocution and articulation. The most indispensible element of any language is its proper form and usage (spoken, written & read). Syntax, grammar, an understanding of colloquialisms; all of these and more will advance verbal and written communication. And then of course there is always 'body' language, facial expressions et al.
Read, Speak and Write the language.
QED - Speaking Words Of Wisdom - Let It Be 129
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The generic/neutral US accent is predominantly upper midwest, which avoids the upper Northern, Northeastern, Southern and Deep South, Texas and Southwest accents (did I miss any? I don't generally associate any particular accent with California past '80s ValleyGirl and SurferDude...there are just too many ethnicities in Cali for me to ascribe a particular accent and I can't recall anything further up the West Coast as being particularly memorable, accent-wise).
Basically, I would assume any neutral accent will avoid the extremes of accents in any particular country. Essentially, speak clearly (enunciate) and try not to slur, drawl, or twang in any way. I would try to keep your pitch fairly even (like not going up/down in pitch at the end of words, phrases, or questions, in particular).
Something that just occurred to me: I'm assuming different regions have a generic neutral, so everyone, what is the neutral regional accent in your area of the world?
A closed mind is like a closed book - nothing can be gained if either remains closed.
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Raparee wrote:
The generic/neutral US accent is predominantly upper midwest...
When I lived in the Midwestern state of Nebraska, I was told that a lot of call centers are located there because of the Nebraskans' neutral accent. It seems like a lot of the call centers there were related to taking catalog orders, but I'm sure there must be others.
So I agree with Raparee on this. The only other thing I can think of to add is that the more you are able to listen to people speak the way you want to learn to speak, the better.
Here is TFD's definition of the Midwest:
Mid·west (md-wst) or Middle West
A region of the north-central United States around the Great Lakes and the upper Mississippi Valley. It is generally considered to include Ohio, Indiana, Illinois, Michigan, Wisconsin, Minnesota, Iowa, Missouri, Kansas, and Nebraska. The area is known for its rich farmlands and highly industrialized centers.
I'm not so sure all of the states listed would also be considered to have neutral accents though. For example, I don't think the accent in Minnesota would be considered as neutral.
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Isn't the proununciation guide in the dictionary designed to give a neutral and accurate representation of our language? It may not include comprehensive usage and its variations but it certainly addresses the baseline for phonetics in a very generic way. In other words, if a Bostonian & a Texan were to pronounce the letters as given they would (or should) be pronouncing the same word the same way. No?
QED - Speaking Words Of Wisdom - Let It Be 129
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VirtueO wrote:Isn't the proununciation guide in the dictionary designed to give a neutral and accurate representation of our language? It may not include comprehensive usage and its variations but it certainly addresses the baseline for phonetics in a very generic way. In other words, if a Bostonian & a Texan were to pronounce the letters as given they would (or should) be pronouncing the same word the same way. No? Not necessarily so. Pronunciation and accent are two very distinct concepts, with, I grant, some blurring in very specific circumstances. But basically, they are different linguistic terms, and do not refer to the same thing. Otherwise, I personally do not buy into this 'neutral' accent claptrap, as it all seems so contrived to me. In any case, which 'neutral' intonation are we discussing about - US/Canadian (with the not-inconsiderable variations between the two themselves), British (did Britain ever have a uniform speech mode, given that it for sure does not have one today?), Australian, etc etc? You do begin to realise the complexity and, with due respect, futility, of this question. Generic accents in the States essentially mean the patterns prevalent in the north central Midwest. In Canada that would be Toronto and adjacent parts of Ontario. In the UK, it would be in reference to the language spoken by the educated elite in the London area and home counties, extending to Cambridgeshire, Huntingdonshire, Northamptonshire and in many cases even to Suffolk and Norfolk (perhaps) further up the East coast of England whilst also including the far south-eastern counties of East Sussex and West Sussex, although there is currently an engaging debate going on about whether Received Pronunciation (RP) should still be considered the benchmark for gauging 'standard English' or whether it is the less stiff, more casual, Estuary English which now rightfully deserves this appellation. With regard to Australian English and other forms of this beautiful tongue, many similar arguments would apply, but it would be pretentious on my part to introduce these here, for I'm just not familiar enough with the English language in its varieties other than those utilised in North America and the British Isles in order to debate about them.
"There is not a truth existing which I fear or would wish unknown to the whole world." -- Thomas Jefferson to Henry Lee, 1826. ME 16:179
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vr091073 wrote:Otherwise, I personally do not buy into this 'neutral' accent claptrap, as it all seems so contrived to me. I think, for the most part, the "neutral" is the most easily identifiable accent for a country for those outside the country. The main problem here is actually the media industry providing stereotypical and often unflattering accents for varying areas. For instance, whereas I can tell the difference between someone from Sheffield and someone from London, not everyone can, but the RP accent (which, I admit, can be a bit stuffy, though I like it) tells pretty much everyone, "ENGLAND." When you get into the more regionalized accents, things get blurry for outsiders. I know there's a huge difference between a Northern Alabama and a Southern Alabama accent, not to mention Georgians and Mississippians. But most people unfamiliar with them might place them in another country altogether! To wit, my younger sister was asked more than a few times what country she was from while she was in school...she was in school in the southern US and was from the southern US. Weirdness. To be fair though, Hollywood has given the world a fairly good taste of "redneck"-southern. Does it exist? Sure. It's not the primary accent by any means and there are so many variations across the states, it's phenomenal.
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Fundamentally, I jibe with your analysis, but I think that the thread-starter wanted to discuss something altogether different. He/She appears to be a non-native English speaker who wishes to acquire, ostensibly by taking elocution classes or something of the sort or maybe just training himself/herself, a 'neutral' accent, which as you correctly state, generally demarcates nationalities from each other. This quest is something I certainly harbour doubts about, since from experience, my own take is that people from non-English-speaking lands can, with due diligence and effort, and often after a while, speak in a manner akin to native anglophones provided there is intense, and in most cases, prolonged, interaction between the learner and those being learnt from.
More frequently than not, what will eventually be developed is the accent local to the native speakers whose idiolects were studied (and copied) to begin with. Now, unless these persons are natural plummy RP utterers or speak General American, the non-native will hardly articulate English neutrally. I shall conclude by saying that exceptions abound in all instances, and the above points can only ever be taken as a broad generalisation of facts, albeit one that is valid, in my opinion. By the way, I too relish the effect of RP to the ears. Actually, its special charm lies in its apparent stuffiness, if you ask me.
"There is not a truth existing which I fear or would wish unknown to the whole world." -- Thomas Jefferson to Henry Lee, 1826. ME 16:179
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Hmmm. I had thought about that, but then couldn't really imagine why someone outside the US would want to sound like a accent-neutral US newscaster. *shrugs* I would think one would want to sound neutral for their own area if you're wanting a neutral accent at all. Personally, I enjoy accent variations, but since I know some are painted as unintelligent (and/or unintelligible!), I thought perhaps this was what they were wanting.
If that is indeed the goal, elocution lessons and constant mimicry of the accent you want to learn are likely best, plus surrounding yourself with it so it becomes common to the ear. I look at the way words are shaped when spoken. The way the mouth forms for certain words and accents is really what differentiates the sounds created. I've also found that having musical skill makes a big difference as you can hear the pitches and variations better, plus accents are inherently musical.
A closed mind is like a closed book - nothing can be gained if either remains closed.
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Raparee wrote:The way the mouth forms for certain words and accents is really what differentiates the sounds created. I've also found that having musical skill makes a big difference as you can hear the pitches and variations better, plus accents are inherently musical. Absolutely. I totally agree.
"There is not a truth existing which I fear or would wish unknown to the whole world." -- Thomas Jefferson to Henry Lee, 1826. ME 16:179
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Ah, Music has been brought up. Accounting for 'style' and interpretation, musical tones are learned identically around the world. A Bb scale on the flute is a Bb scale around the world. Played correctly the notes are the same. Why isn't this true for prounouncing the 'o' properly (in English)in say, avocado, shoe or omnibus. If the dictionary gives us set 'sounds' and these are adhered to, then there should be no difference in pronounciation in any part of the (English speaking) world. Of course I know there is but, as a theory it should hold water. No? I believe this is how anthropologists write the unwritable, with a given set of symbols which represent sounds of speech (phonetics), thereby copying the intonations which are later associated with words and meanings and voila - a translation. Just a thought. In other words, there is a basis for pronounciation, however regionality, culture and physical attributes of the mouth and throat, prevent this from becoming a full spectral norm. Instead we have and can detect - Accents
QED - Speaking Words Of Wisdom - Let It Be 129
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Well, Some people think there is something called as neutral accent. Accents are most clear when you speak slangs and try speaking proper language without any slangs and local pronunciations, you'll be surprised. Neural accent is easy to understand for everyone but rather difficult to speak because there will be some or other word that we use our own (or local/regional) style to pronounce. For more information, please refer, http://www.neutralaccent.com/neutralaccent.php
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